Our View of the Bible (part 1)
As I mentioned in my possible blog topics list, one of the topics I have been thinking a great deal about over the last few years is our view of the Bible. Sure, I could start with a difficult, culturally-relavant, emotional subject like ‘Substance abuse in Golf’, but I thought I’d begin with an easy one. Something that people casually discuss over Starbucks, where I love to drink hot chocolate with Raspberry. :) So, let’s get started, shall we?
I had a conversation at our church retreat just over a year ago with a few good friends, one of them being Brian. In that discussion, I believe we started out discussing a woman’s role in church and ended up asking questions about the Bible. One question I asked a female friend of ours (who is in seminary I think, or studying theology), was:
When did the Church Leaders begin referring to the Bible as Infallible & Inerrant?
To my recollection, no one had an answer…including me. Now, I would like to make a few disclaimers before I go on. First, I haven’t researched an answer to that question myself, which maybe I’ll do soon. Second, even though I may have some different thoughts or questions about our view of Scripture, I don’t believe that discredits the Bible or its relavance to our lives. I’m just questioning our view of it and the words we use to describe it, especially in light of some of the recourses of those words.
If we say that the Bible is Infallible & Inerrant, does that mean it is to be taken literally? I was always under the impression that it was, but I’m sure that is a debated topic as well. Dictionary.com defines Infallible as ’Incapable of erring’. It defines Inerrant as ‘Containing no errors’ (the #2 definition). So, even if we just say that ‘It is without Error’, what does that imply?
—– The below section should have been saved for part 2 of this discussion —–
Here are 2 passages that I wonder about when people say the Bible is without error:
‘I also want women to dress modestly, with decency and propriety, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or expensive clothes’ - 1 Timothy 2:9 (NIV)
‘I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent.’ - 1 Timothy 2:12 (NIV)
I know that this is picking verses up out of context, but I wonder…why does the church, as a whole, seem to follow one more than the other? How did we decide which one was just a ’cultural issue’ and which one was a ’spiritual issue’?
Well, I have many more thoughts, questions and opinions on this subject, but I’ll have to continue them in another post and on another day.
