Our View of the Bible (part 1 explained)
Ok, so after posting my last entry, I realized that in an attempt to break-up this discussion into managable parts, I didn’t accomplish that so well. I have modified the previous post and put in a dividing line where the part 1 discussion should have stopped.
In part 1 of this topic, I really wasn’t trying to discuss writing styles, such as hyperbole, allegory/metaphor,etc. However, I realize now that those styles were brought into question by including those 2 verses of Scripture and my comments about them. My main goal was to discuss this concept of ‘Infallible & Inerrant’. I’m wondering when the Church leaders began referring to the Bible as Infallible & Inerrant? I was also wondering, is it fair or accurate to say that the accepted definition of ’Infallible & Inerrant’ is ’being without error’?
The comments I made about the question of taking the Bible literally were really intended to be directed towards those sections of Scripture that are teaching oriented, versus allegory, etc. To answer Jenn’s question, her assumption is correct, I don’t think we should hold to a “literal” interpretation of a book like Revelation. The main reason I used the word ‘literal’ was to give an idea or suggestion of a possible answer to the implications of defining ‘Infallible & Inerrant’ as ‘being without error’. If it is without error, do we have to take it all literally, and if not (which I think not), then how do we explain what that phrase means in a practical sense.
Well, I hope this clears up part 1 of this discussion and clarifies the question I was trying to pose. I look forward to discussing some of the other points that were brought up in my post as well as the comments in future posts.
